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If "am" applies to "I", why is it: "Aren't I"?Get Rating Widget!

Overall Rating: 3.33 based on 6 ratings
Funny as in: "It don't seem to make any sense" (Add picture)



This item was submitted by ma duron (62) on 12/19/2005 7:42:11 AM.

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Reviews for If "am" applies to "I", why is it: "Aren't I"?  1-6 OF 6

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MissPackRat4Jesus (37)
01/25/2008
Because "amn't" just doesn't have a good ring to it. And I aren't kidding. :-)

  (2 voted this helpful, 3 funny and 0 agree)
ILikePie (51)
09/16/2007
Have you tried saying 'amn't I?' recently?...

  (1 voted this helpful, 0 funny and 1 agree)
smjg (0)
09/14/2007
I recall hearing somewhere that "ain't" was originally the negative of "am".

Still, why should "amn't" be any harder to pronounce than "isn't"?

  (1 voted this helpful, 0 funny and 0 agree)
LastMessenger3 (40)
09/02/2006
Believe it or not, I asked this question on more than one occasion and you know what they said - that's the way it is. I hate that reply.

  (2 voted this helpful, 0 funny and 0 agree)
Jed1000 (72)
12/19/2005
It's one of those exceptions to the rule (of which English has many). "Amn't I?" just doesn't have the same flow. Exceptions are often made for ease of pronunciation. Note 'pronunciation' rather than 'pronounciation.'

  (5 voted this helpful, 0 funny and 0 agree)
ma duron (62)
12/19/2005
Phonetics are probably involved here, as it usually is the case.

  (3 voted this helpful, 0 funny and 0 agree)
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